Discussion Group for General Hebrew Questions

[Golv]

Correct .
And if I may be allowed another minor correction -as a rule,whenever a noun is followed by a possessive pronoun[that is,any of the declensions of 'shel'],it should be in definite state; this rule doesn't apply when a possessive suffix is used instead.

Thus:
ani lo yakhol lehaziz et ha'regel sheli[or alternatively,'ani lo yakhol lehaziz et ragli'].

[HoneyBuzzard]

A coda with daghesh forte necessarily has a vocal shewa, but if the daghesh is dropped and marked with raphe, does it maintain the vocal shewa? I'm asking because I'm reading Weingreen, and on page 17 it says:

[T]he plural verb 'they sought' should be ‎בִּקְּשׁוּ (biqqəšû) with a Dagheš Forte Characteristic in the ק (p. 15), but it is often found without the doubling of the second root-letter as בִּקְשׁוּ (biqəšû) with a Raphe over that letter, indicating that, for smoother pronunciation, the doubling (i.e., the Dagheš Forte) has been omitted.

But wouldn’t בִּקְשׁוּ be biqšû, i.e., without the vocal shewa?

[Teutonius]

ישקני = yishaqeni = let him kiss me???
What form is yishaq grammatically?

[Teutonius]

hu met = he die(d?)
hi metah = she dies/d?
is there any difference between past and present tense?

what does matenu mean?

we lived = chayinu?
they lived = chayu?

[Golv]

A coda with daghesh forte necessarily has a vocal shewa, but if the daghesh is dropped and marked with raphe, does it maintain the vocal shewa? I'm asking because I'm reading Weingreen, and on page 17 it says:

[T]he plural verb 'they sought' should be ‎בִּקְּשׁוּ (biqqəšû) with a Dagheš Forte Characteristic in the ק (p. 15), but it is often found without the doubling of the second root-letter as בִּקְשׁוּ (biqəšû) with a Raphe over that letter, indicating that, for smoother pronunciation, the doubling (i.e., the Dagheš Forte) has been omitted.

But wouldn’t בִּקְשׁוּ be biqšû, i.e., without the vocal shewa?

I can't see why should that happen.

The rule which states that following a daghesh forte,a shewa has to be vocal is but a guideline that bases itself on the fact that daghesh forte starts a new syllable,and therefore cannot be followed by a silent shewa; its occurrence there has no direct relation to the daghesh.

By definition,if the origin of the shewa is in a vowel in the unmarked form of the word,it is vocal.

is there any difference between past and present tense?

what does matenu mean?
ישקני = yishaqeni = let him kiss me???
What form is yishaq grammatically?

- There isn't any difference.
- 'mete[y]nu' means 'our dead'.
- future,3rd person msc. singular,binyan qal.
- the rest is correct.

[Teutonius]

להושיעה
is that the infinitive lehovoshia' of hoshi'a?
is hovoshi'a the correct imperative form?
what is then Hoshia'na!?
Hoshia' is given as the past form (eg. morfix dict.)
-> http://www.morfix.co.il/en/%D7%9C%D7%94 ... 7%A2%D7%94

[HoneyBuzzard]

By definition,if the origin of the shewa is in a vowel in the unmarked form of the word,it is vocal.

When you say "if," do you mean "because"? It was my impression that the vocal shewa under a daghesh forte was purely euphonic.

[Golv]

להושיעה
is that the infinitive lehovoshia' of hoshi'a?
is hovoshi'a the correct imperative form?
what is then Hoshia'na!?
Hoshia' is given as the past form (eg. morfix dict.)
-> http://www.morfix.co.il/en/%D7%9C%D7%94 ... 7%A2%D7%94

-It is להושיע.
-The imperative form is הושע hosha'.
-It would help if you were to include the exact hebrew spelling along with your transcriptions,so that I won't be left to guess which word you were referring to and whether you read it correctly.

In this particular case I can think of several options:

a.הושיעה-נא hoshia'-na,which I believe I have already explained - hoshia' being the long imperative form and 'na' used as a particle to express politeness or pleading.
b.הושיענה hoshie'na or hoshia'na,which better fits your transcription,but is less likely that you have encountered,and means 'save her'/'saved her'.
c.other possibilities are הושע-נא and הושענא,with the former similar in meaning to A above,and the latter being a holiday's name derived thereof.

When you say "if," do you mean "because"? It was my impression that the vocal shewa under a daghesh forte was purely euphonic.

I do.
In its most basic definition,a vocal shewa is a vowel that undergone shortening due to the distancing of the stress in the word.

[Teutonius]

- Do you use the verb "to put in" in the paal or hifil form: sam/hesim? And what is the infinitive (pronounced) like?
- crucify = hitsliv / tsalav?
- What is the infinitive of daras (run over)?
- How is tigrom conjugated in the futur tense?
egrom, tigrom / tigremi...?
- Why are pa'al verbs indicated by קל qal?
- hitga'ge'a / hitga'gea'? Is there a patach ganuv?
Thank you!

Now I have got hovoshia', hoshia*, and hoasha' as imperatives... :-/

[HoneyBuzzard]

When you say "if," do you mean "because"? It was my impression that the vocal shewa under a daghesh forte was purely euphonic.

I do.
In its most basic definition,a vocal shewa is a vowel that undergone shortening due to the distancing of the stress in the word.

Okay, I see how that works. Thanks.

[Teutonius]

Are these forms correct?
laga'at, לגעת berühren, betreffen, befallen
lingoa', לנגוע anstecken?, ניגע
- naga', נגע, nogea' נוגע
- nagua' = (sind) angesteckt (ppp)
And how do you form the passive voice?
??? = wird / wurde angesteckt

[Teutonius]

What is "man" in יא מאן מניאק ??
What is "jora" in סתום ת יורה??

[Teutonius]

Do lagaat / lingoa both mean to touch or to infect? Or 'infect' only in the passive voice?
How do you say: do not touch!?

[Golv]

- Do you use the verb "to put in" in the paal or hifil form: sam/hesim? And what is the infinitive (pronounced) like? lasim/lehasim,I think the latter is more close in meaning to set,install,appoint
- crucify = hitsliv / tsalav?tzalav
- What is the infinitive of daras (run over)? lidros
- How is tigrom conjugated in the futur tense?
egrom, tigrom / tigremi...? yigrom/tigrom,yigremu/tigromna.
- Why are pa'al verbs indicated by קל qal? It is called 'light-weighted'[qal] because the unmarked form of verbs belonging to binyan pa'al,as opposed to other binyanim,seems to be bare and without characteristic features such as affixes or a dagesh,consisting of the core stem alone.
- hitga'ge'a / hitga'gea'? Is there a patach ganuv?
Yes.
Can you tell me what exactly the apostrophe mark (') indicates in your transcriptions?

Now I have got hovoshia', hoshia*, and hoasha' as imperatives... :-/
הושע-imperative; הושיעה-long imperative; הושיע-past tense,sounds exactly like הושיעה to a modern hebrew speaker and therefore could have been mistakingly thought to mean the same.

laga'at, לגעת berühren, betreffen, befallen
lingoa', לנגוע anstecken?, ניגע it means exactly the same thing as laga'at.anstecken is לנגע lenage'a
- naga', נגע, nogea' נוגע
- nagua' = (sind) angesteckt (ppp) (ist)
And how do you form the passive voice?
??? = wird / wurde angesteckt niga,hunga


What is "man" in יא מאן מניאק ?? doubling of the first syllable for emphasis.
What is "jora" in סתום ת יורה?? from the arabic word for "hole" جُورَة according to wiktionary,which I believe is a cognate to hebrew חור.

How do you say: do not touch!?
אל תיגע
לא לגעת/לנגוע

[Teutonius]

אל תיגע = 'al tiga'! ??
The ' stands for the alef/ayin to mark the glottal "stop".
So with patach ganuv it is: hitga'gea' (the ayin pronounced after the a, if it is pronounced at all.)
Do you know, if : e(n)ga', ... yig'u (future), and ga'i/u (imperative) are correct?
And what does the hif'il of naga' mean?
Do both לגעת / לנגוע mean touch (with hand) and affect (as illnesses)?
Is there also: munga?
(How) do niga and hunga differ in meanig?
ani nigati = ani hungati = i was touched (by someones hand)?

[Golv]

אל תיגע = 'al tiga'! ?? Yes.
The ' stands for the alef/ayin to mark the glottal "stop".
So with patach ganuv it is: hitga'gea' (the ayin pronounced after the a, if it is pronounced at all.)
Do you know, if : e(n)ga', ... yig'u (future), and ga'i/u (imperative) are correct? ega',g[e]'i,g[e]'u
And what does the hif'il of naga' mean? להגיע? it means 'reach,arrive', or dictionarily,also 'to make two objects touch each other'.I am quite confident I have heard the incorrect colloquial variant "le'angia" used for the second meaning,with the nun not omitted in order to differ between the two,but I am not sure.
Do both לגעת / לנגוע mean touch (with hand) and affect (as illnesses)? both mean 'to touch'
Is there also: munga? No.I apologise,I have no idea how I came up with this word.The stem in this particular sense doesn't seem to exist in binyan huf'al,and if it were the nun would have been omitted.Your 2 options are niga and nuga.
(How) do niga and nuga differ in meanig? They do,the difference is mostly nuanced.Nuga sounds to me more causative in nature,perhaps even implying deliberate intent[or in other words,same as if it were binyan huf'al; see also:נדבק/הודבק].
ani nigati = ani nugati = i was touched (by someones hand)? infected,not touched[ningati].

[Teutonius]

So there is also manuga' with which meaning?

[Golv]

m[e]nuga as the present tense of nuga,or muga-brought into touch/contact.

[Teutonius]

Well, how do you say:
Touch the screen? (to a male person)
Dont touch me!
He/she is/was touched by the movie.
He/she is/was infected by a disease.
He arrives/d in or reaches/d Rome.
He tries to reach her (runnig behind, or sitting near her).

[Golv]

-גע/תיגע במסך
-אל תיגע בי
-הסרט נגע בו/בה
-נדבק במחלה/ניגע בנגע
-הוא מגיע/הגיע לרומא
-הוא מנסה להשיג אותה,הוא מנסה להגיע אליה