[T]he plural verb 'they sought' should be בִּקְּשׁוּ (biqqəšû) with a Dagheš Forte Characteristic in the ק (p. 15), but it is often found without the doubling of the second root-letter as בִּקְשׁוּ (biqəšû) with a Raphe over that letter, indicating that, for smoother pronunciation, the doubling (i.e., the Dagheš Forte) has been omitted.
HoneyBuzzard wrote:A coda with daghesh forte necessarily has a vocal shewa, but if the daghesh is dropped and marked with raphe, does it maintain the vocal shewa? I'm asking because I'm reading Weingreen, and on page 17 it says:[T]he plural verb 'they sought' should be בִּקְּשׁוּ (biqqəšû) with a Dagheš Forte Characteristic in the ק (p. 15), but it is often found without the doubling of the second root-letter as בִּקְשׁוּ (biqəšû) with a Raphe over that letter, indicating that, for smoother pronunciation, the doubling (i.e., the Dagheš Forte) has been omitted.
But wouldn’t בִּקְשׁוּ be biqšû, i.e., without the vocal shewa?
Teutonius wrote:is there any difference between past and present tense?
what does matenu mean?
ישקני = yishaqeni = let him kiss me???
What form is yishaq grammatically?
Golv wrote:By definition,if the origin of the shewa is in a vowel in the unmarked form of the word,it is vocal.
is that the infinitive lehovoshia' of hoshi'a?
is hovoshi'a the correct imperative form?
what is then Hoshia'na!?
Hoshia' is given as the past form (eg. morfix dict.)
-> http://www.morfix.co.il/en/%D7%9C%D7%94 ... 7%A2%D7%94
HoneyBuzzard wrote:When you say "if," do you mean "because"? It was my impression that the vocal shewa under a daghesh forte was purely euphonic.
Golv wrote:HoneyBuzzard wrote:When you say "if," do you mean "because"? It was my impression that the vocal shewa under a daghesh forte was purely euphonic.
In its most basic definition,a vocal shewa is a vowel that undergone shortening due to the distancing of the stress in the word.
Teutonius wrote:- Do you use the verb "to put in" in the paal or hifil form: sam/hesim? And what is the infinitive (pronounced) like? lasim/lehasim,I think the latter is more close in meaning to set,install,appoint
- crucify = hitsliv / tsalav?tzalav
- What is the infinitive of daras (run over)? lidros
- How is tigrom conjugated in the futur tense?
egrom, tigrom / tigremi...? yigrom/tigrom,yigremu/tigromna.
- Why are pa'al verbs indicated by קל qal? It is called 'light-weighted'[qal] because the unmarked form of verbs belonging to binyan pa'al,as opposed to other binyanim,seems to be bare and without characteristic features such as affixes or a dagesh,consisting of the core stem alone.
- hitga'ge'a / hitga'gea'? Is there a patach ganuv?
Can you tell me what exactly the apostrophe mark (') indicates in your transcriptions?
Now I have got hovoshia', hoshia*, and hoasha' as imperatives... :-/
הושע-imperative; הושיעה-long imperative; הושיע-past tense,sounds exactly like הושיעה to a modern hebrew speaker and therefore could have been mistakingly thought to mean the same.
laga'at, לגעת berühren, betreffen, befallen
lingoa', לנגוע anstecken?, ניגע it means exactly the same thing as laga'at.anstecken is לנגע lenage'a
- naga', נגע, nogea' נוגע
- nagua' = (sind) angesteckt (ppp) (ist)
And how do you form the passive voice?
??? = wird / wurde angesteckt niga,hunga
What is "man" in יא מאן מניאק ?? doubling of the first syllable for emphasis.
What is "jora" in סתום ת יורה?? from the arabic word for "hole" جُورَة according to wiktionary,which I believe is a cognate to hebrew חור.
How do you say: do not touch!?
Teutonius wrote:אל תיגע = 'al tiga'! ?? Yes.
The ' stands for the alef/ayin to mark the glottal "stop".
So with patach ganuv it is: hitga'gea' (the ayin pronounced after the a, if it is pronounced at all.)
Do you know, if : e(n)ga', ... yig'u (future), and ga'i/u (imperative) are correct? ega',g[e]'i,g[e]'u
And what does the hif'il of naga' mean? להגיע? it means 'reach,arrive', or dictionarily,also 'to make two objects touch each other'.I am quite confident I have heard the incorrect colloquial variant "le'angia" used for the second meaning,with the nun not omitted in order to differ between the two,but I am not sure.
Do both לגעת / לנגוע mean touch (with hand) and affect (as illnesses)? both mean 'to touch'
Is there also: munga? No.I apologise,I have no idea how I came up with this word.The stem in this particular sense doesn't seem to exist in binyan huf'al,and if it were the nun would have been omitted.Your 2 options are niga and nuga.
(How) do niga and nuga differ in meanig? They do,the difference is mostly nuanced.Nuga sounds to me more causative in nature,perhaps even implying deliberate intent[or in other words,same as if it were binyan huf'al; see also:נדבק/הודבק].
ani nigati = ani nugati = i was touched (by someones hand)? infected,not touched[ningati].
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